Practice questions › MBBS / Medicine › MBBS Professional Review: Medicine
Clinical MCQs: Set 3 (Questions 41–60) MCQs
MBBS Professional Review: Medicine · MBBS / Medicine · 26 practice questions
- Infectious Disease - Travellers' Diarrhoea
- Gynecology - Mullerian Anomalies and Amenorrhea
- Neurology - Intracranial Mass Lesions
- Psychiatry - Anorexia Nervosa
- Gynecologic Oncology - Cervical Dysplasia in Pregnancy
- Surgery - Vesicocolic Fistula
- Psychiatry - Sleep Disturbance in Depression
- Breast Disease - Family History and Screening
1. A returning traveller has bloody diarrhoea with mobile organisms identified on stool microscopy from endoscopic scrapings, and responds rapidly to oral metronidazole. Which organism is most consistent with this presentation?
- AGiardia lamblia
- BEntamoeba histolytica
- CCryptosporidium parvum
- DShigella species
Show answer
B. Entamoeba histolytica Amoebiasis, caused by Entamoeba histolytica, is diagnosed by identifying motile trophozoites in stool or endoscopic scrapings, and typically responds rapidly to oral metronidazole, distinguishing it from shigellosis (diagnosed by culture, treated with ciprofloxacin).
2. A pregnant patient with CIN3 undergoes colposcopy which shows the lesion is fully visualized and does not extend up the endocervical canal. When should the definitive treatment decision typically be made?
- AAt 34 weeks gestation via repeat Pap smear
- BOnly after termination of pregnancy is arranged
- CAt the postpartum visit, unless colposcopy suggests invasive cancer earlier
- DImmediately, with cone biopsy performed at the time of colposcopy
Show answer
C. At the postpartum visit, unless colposcopy suggests invasive cancer earlier The text states that a decision on final treatment is not usually made until the postpartum visit, unless colposcopy findings suggest invasive cancer at an earlier point in the pregnancy.
3. A 15-year-old girl with normal secondary sexual characteristics presents with cyclical monthly pain and primary amenorrhea. Abdominal examination reveals a tender suprapubic mass. Which of the following is now the most likely explanation for her presentation, in contrast to a patient with no palpable mass?
- AMullerian agenesis with absent uterus
- BObstruction to menstrual outflow such as an imperforate hymen causing haematometra/haematocolpos
- CNormal ovulatory pain (mittelschmerz) with a coincidental unrelated mass
- DAnovulatory cycles causing pain without a structural cause
Show answer
B. Obstruction to menstrual outflow such as an imperforate hymen causing haematometra/haematocolpos The presence of a suprapubic mass, unlike the case in the original vignette where no mass was found, indicates retained menstrual blood (haematometra/haematocolpos) from outflow tract obstruction such as an imperforate hymen, transverse septum, or cervical obstruction.
Practise all 26 questions free
Every answer is marked the moment you tap it, with the reason. Your weak topics come back until you get them right.
Start free, no card needed